Angela Rayner to face investigation?
Discussion
chrispmartha said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
chrispmartha said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
To either.
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
1. It was a house she owned
2. She lived there before her marriage
3. She says she continued to live there after her marriage.
The evidence that she didn't live there is an article in the Daily Mail quoting a hatchet job by Lord Ashcroft quoting an unnamed neighbour.
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
To either.
Oakey said:
I guess it depends on whether you believe her and her husband lived separately during that period.
To be honest based on nothing more than gut instinct I don’t. However what I believe is irrelevant. Angie has clearly taken advice, she’s going to stick with ‘it was my primary residence all along’. Given the passage of time it’s going to be virtually impossible to prove to any reasonable standard that’s not true and hence that’ll be the end of it. The only issues I can see would be if ex-hubby appears with a different tale (and even that might not be particularly compelling from a former spouse) or it transpires she owned house number 2 as well and upon sale has treated that as her primary residence for CGT purposes for an overlapping period. Amateurish said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
1. It was a house she owned
2. She lived there before her marriage
3. She says she continued to live there after her marriage.
The evidence that she didn't live there is an article in the Daily Mail quoting a hatchet job by Lord Ashcroft quoting an unnamed neighbour.
1. Pay council tax on property A and B with a 25% reduction for each because of the single person allowancea single person
OR
2. Pay full council tax on Property A and 75% on property B.
OR
3. Pay full council tax on both because they happen to use / sleep at both houses.
It's a quesion I would like to know as well because there doesn't seem to be any guidence on what consitutes living at a property, say you only pop in for an hour every day but still regard the property as your property (and consider it an opiton in case the marriage doesn't work), does that work? What constitues living at a property? Do you have to sleep over more than 50% of the time?
djohnson said:
Oakey said:
I guess it depends on whether you believe her and her husband lived separately during that period.
To be honest based on nothing more than gut instinct I don’t. However what I believe is irrelevant. Angie has clearly taken advice, she’s going to stick with ‘it was my primary residence all along’. Given the passage of time it’s going to be virtually impossible to prove to any reasonable standard that’s not true and hence that’ll be the end of it. The only issues I can see would be if ex-hubby appears with a different tale (and even that might not be particularly compelling from a former spouse) or it transpires she owned house number 2 as well and upon sale has treated that as her primary residence for CGT purposes for an overlapping period. There would be plenty of people who would know for sure and would be willing to give anonymous details to a paper - disgruntled former colleagues would have known her living situation for example.
Perhaps Ashcroft will reveal more information? I can't imagine he decided to randomly ask neighbours if they had seen her living there.
What's more likely?
A) Angela Rayner got married and then spent the next five years living in a separate house to her husband?
B) Angela Rayner moved in with her husband, kept her name on the electoral register for her own house, possibly rented it out to her brother and then sold up avoiding CGT in the process?
A) Angela Rayner got married and then spent the next five years living in a separate house to her husband?
B) Angela Rayner moved in with her husband, kept her name on the electoral register for her own house, possibly rented it out to her brother and then sold up avoiding CGT in the process?
sugerbear said:
Amateurish said:
119 said:
chrispmartha said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
Why would she have to pay CGT if her explanation is correct?
It all depends - She didn't live there for the entire period, she rented it to her brother. Because she said so?
1. It was a house she owned
2. She lived there before her marriage
3. She says she continued to live there after her marriage.
The evidence that she didn't live there is an article in the Daily Mail quoting a hatchet job by Lord Ashcroft quoting an unnamed neighbour.
1. Pay council tax on property A and B with a 25% reduction for each because of the single person allowancea single person
OR
2. Pay full council tax on Property A and 75% on property B.
OR
3. Pay full council tax on both because they happen to use / sleep at both houses.
It's a quesion I would like to know as well because there doesn't seem to be any guidence on what consitutes living at a property, say you only pop in for an hour every day but still regard the property as your property (and consider it an opiton in case the marriage doesn't work), does that work? What constitues living at a property? Do you have to sleep over more than 50% of the time?
rscott said:
Hugo Stiglitz said:
chrispmartha said:
She's explained it here
https://x.com/AngelaRayner/status/1762219581114884...
This just seems like a scraping the barrell smear campaign to me.
"All before I was a MP". Immaterial if the CGT and discount were paid, no problem. https://x.com/AngelaRayner/status/1762219581114884...
This just seems like a scraping the barrell smear campaign to me.
Oakey said:
What's more likely?
A) Angela Rayner got married and then spent the next five years living in a separate house to her husband?
B) Angela Rayner moved in with her husband, kept her name on the electoral register for her own house, possibly rented it out to her brother and then sold up avoiding CGT in the process?
The answer is:A) Angela Rayner got married and then spent the next five years living in a separate house to her husband?
B) Angela Rayner moved in with her husband, kept her name on the electoral register for her own house, possibly rented it out to her brother and then sold up avoiding CGT in the process?
C) Grrrrr Tories
Oakey said:
What's more likely?
A) Angela Rayner got married and then spent the next five years living in a separate house to her husband?
B) Angela Rayner moved in with her husband, kept her name on the electoral register for her own house, possibly rented it out to her brother and then sold up avoiding CGT in the process?
Well wrongdoing isn't decided on what is more likely.A) Angela Rayner got married and then spent the next five years living in a separate house to her husband?
B) Angela Rayner moved in with her husband, kept her name on the electoral register for her own house, possibly rented it out to her brother and then sold up avoiding CGT in the process?
Interesting how some have decided it is a non-story despite the lack of evidence either way and what is the more likely scenario though.
Well worth further investigation by the media to try and determine the truth. Or is that an unacceptable "hatchet job" merely because the target of investigation is a Labour politician?.
JagLover said:
Well wrongdoing isn't decided on what is more likely.
Interesting how some have decided it is a non-story despite the lack of evidence either way and what is the more likely scenario though.
Well worth further investigation by the media to try and determine the truth. Or is that an unacceptable "hatchet job" merely because the target of investigation is a Labour politician?.
Well it is a non story at the moment. Saying there is a “lack of evidence either way” is weasel words. You can’t prove a negative, and you are someone very happy to jump up and down on the “innocent until proven guilty” bandwagon when there is evidence but no legal verdict, yet here you are expecting made up scenarios happy to accept they might be true.Interesting how some have decided it is a non-story despite the lack of evidence either way and what is the more likely scenario though.
Well worth further investigation by the media to try and determine the truth. Or is that an unacceptable "hatchet job" merely because the target of investigation is a Labour politician?.
If the media find something then it should all come out and be dealt with. At the moment, however, we have people making up stuff and then demanding proof.
It’s pathetic really. What’s best? Demanding MPs prove they have paid their income tax correctly? Has anyone checked Starmars car is taxed and MOTed? After all, he would be breaking the law if he hasn’t. How can we trust someone to be PM if they don’t pay their car tax! It’s all the most pathetic levels of mud slinging.
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