Divorce & Finances

Author
Discussion

GCH

3,993 posts

203 months

Wednesday 1st June 2016
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super7 said:
i do believe, although I might be wrong, that assets obtained before marriage are not included in a settlement??
I asked people from three (UK, not US) firms this when I was shopping around for one, and got three totally different answers.


Red Devil

13,069 posts

209 months

Thursday 2nd June 2016
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Dr Jekyll said:
I know someone who was married for about 10 years. Initially his wife moved into his house, then at her instigation they sold it and bought a bigger one. He put the (his) equity from the first house into the second, I don't think she put any capital in but she helped pay the mortgage.

She then walked out taking nothing except a suitcase and her car. A few years later they divorced, no talk of finances, no children involved.

Now, nearly 20 years after she walked out and about 12 years after the divorce, she is after him for money. Specifically her share of the house which he's been paying a mortgage on single handed ever since she walked out.

What on earth should he expect to be asked to pay in this situation? How can she possibly expect a significant proportion of the value of the house?
Because that's the way it works - http://www.theguardian.com/law/2015/mar/11/woman-w...

The guy you know made the schoolboy error of not obtaining a clean break Consent Order. Whether he would have been able to keep the house at the time would depend on whether he could have re-mortgaged to pay her off.