Management company charging for water used by previous owner
Discussion
Hello all,
I would really appreciate some advice in relation to an issue I am currently facing.
I purchased a flat in October of this year. The block pays its water bills by means of a recharge from the management company. Each flat has its own water meter so the bill is exact, not split across flats.
I returned home this evening to an invoice for water from the management company. The period invoiced is the 1st January 2015 to the 31st December 2015 and the bill is about £250. The letter also advises that the 2016 invoice will follow shortly after as well as an apology that both invoices have taken so long to come to be sent out.
Both of these invoices (save the October to Dec 2016 element of the 2016 invoice) relate to water used by the previous leaseholder. Where do I stand in regards to this. Surely I can't be expected to pay for someone else's water bill?
It's probably also important to clarify that my solicitor covered these questions during the conveyancing and we were informed that water was charged every three to four months in line with usage. The apology for the invoice delay mentioned above may indicate that this hasn't been the case recently. We also received an up to date statement of account for the previous owner with a zero balance at time of sale and confirmation that all service charges were up to date (I believe this came from sellers solicitors rather than the management company but I will check.)
I know that any backdated service charge debts are transferable to the new owner. Can and does the same apply to utilities when recharged by a management company?
I just can't really believe I'm in a position where I should have to pay out over £500 for someone else's dishonesty.
In the event I have to pay up in the first instance, will I have any come back with the seller?
Thank you very much in advance for your help.
Michael
I would really appreciate some advice in relation to an issue I am currently facing.
I purchased a flat in October of this year. The block pays its water bills by means of a recharge from the management company. Each flat has its own water meter so the bill is exact, not split across flats.
I returned home this evening to an invoice for water from the management company. The period invoiced is the 1st January 2015 to the 31st December 2015 and the bill is about £250. The letter also advises that the 2016 invoice will follow shortly after as well as an apology that both invoices have taken so long to come to be sent out.
Both of these invoices (save the October to Dec 2016 element of the 2016 invoice) relate to water used by the previous leaseholder. Where do I stand in regards to this. Surely I can't be expected to pay for someone else's water bill?
It's probably also important to clarify that my solicitor covered these questions during the conveyancing and we were informed that water was charged every three to four months in line with usage. The apology for the invoice delay mentioned above may indicate that this hasn't been the case recently. We also received an up to date statement of account for the previous owner with a zero balance at time of sale and confirmation that all service charges were up to date (I believe this came from sellers solicitors rather than the management company but I will check.)
I know that any backdated service charge debts are transferable to the new owner. Can and does the same apply to utilities when recharged by a management company?
I just can't really believe I'm in a position where I should have to pay out over £500 for someone else's dishonesty.
In the event I have to pay up in the first instance, will I have any come back with the seller?
Thank you very much in advance for your help.
Michael
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