Charge on a property

Charge on a property

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Blown2CV

Original Poster:

28,809 posts

203 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
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i was owed money (won a small claims case which resulted in a CCJ against the other party) so I leveraged the ability to charge one of the debtor's properties. How do I know it will work the way I want it to? I had to word the charge myself so I am concerned it won't result in me getting my money as and when the property is sold. I didn't want to force the sale, but I may consider it in future.

jonamv8

3,151 posts

166 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
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How much are you talking, approx?

Chrisgr31

13,474 posts

255 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
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I don't know how it was worded or who did it but this happened where I worked and was pretty effective although very delayed settlement.

A client had refused to pay an invoice, taken to court we won etc, but still no settlement, so we placed a charge on his house.

Nothing happened for several years but then he wanted to remortgage and found he couldn't with the charge in place. Forced him to pay up.

Simpo Two

85,422 posts

265 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
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Blown2CV said:
i was owed money (won a small claims case which resulted in a CCJ against the other party) so I leveraged the ability to charge one of the debtor's properties. How do I know it will work the way I want it to? I had to word the charge myself so I am concerned it won't result in me getting my money as and when the property is sold. I didn't want to force the sale, but I may consider it in future.
Why did you go for a charge on property and not upgrade to High Court enforcement?

Blown2CV

Original Poster:

28,809 posts

203 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
quotequote all
jonamv8 said:
How much are you talking, approx?
couple of grand

Blown2CV

Original Poster:

28,809 posts

203 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
quotequote all
Chrisgr31 said:
I don't know how it was worded or who did it but this happened where I worked and was pretty effective although very delayed settlement.

A client had refused to pay an invoice, taken to court we won etc, but still no settlement, so we placed a charge on his house.

Nothing happened for several years but then he wanted to remortgage and found he couldn't with the charge in place. Forced him to pay up.
it's not so much the concept i have an issue with; it seemed the right route to pursue... more i was asking how do i validate i've done it correctly! The charge wording was just a free text box on a form, which I wrote myself. I did use the guidance notes, but they are a bit legalese...

Blown2CV

Original Poster:

28,809 posts

203 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
quotequote all
Simpo Two said:
Blown2CV said:
i was owed money (won a small claims case which resulted in a CCJ against the other party) so I leveraged the ability to charge one of the debtor's properties. How do I know it will work the way I want it to? I had to word the charge myself so I am concerned it won't result in me getting my money as and when the property is sold. I didn't want to force the sale, but I may consider it in future.
Why did you go for a charge on property and not upgrade to High Court enforcement?
Now bear with me. His financial particulars state that basically the guy is money-skint, and he's on a debt management charity plan. Importantly, he however has a number of rental properties (the rent is his income) which he has owned for sufficient time to be mortgage free. He's semi-retired and is selling them off one-by-one. So, I don't feel bad knocking a couple of grand off the proceeds of an entire house sale, but it didn't sit well with me to send the bailiffs round. That, and they might only get hold of a few things which would scarcely cover the cost. They'd need to confiscate over £6k worth of stuff to get my £2k back. That's a lot of st to have lying around for someone who says they are skint.

Simpo Two

85,422 posts

265 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
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Blown2CV said:
Now bear with me. His financial particulars state that basically the guy is money-skint, and he's on a debt management charity plan. Importantly, he however has a number of rental properties (the rent is his income) which he has owned for sufficient time to be mortgage free. He's semi-retired and is selling them off one-by-one. So, I don't feel bad knocking a couple of grand off the proceeds of an entire house sale, but it didn't sit well with me to send the bailiffs round. That, and they might only get hold of a few things which would scarcely cover the cost. They'd need to confiscate over £6k worth of stuff to get my £2k back. That's a lot of st to have lying around for someone who says they are skint.
I agree, but if he has a car then High Court bailiffs can take it away and sell it (you'll be amazed how that focuses debtor's minds). Don't be nice to him, you're the one that's been cheated.

Sounds like he's basically crap with money, and if he has many creditors, the one that makes the biggest nuisance of himself gets paid first. As it is, if he doesn't sell his house (did you put the charge on his house or a rental one?), you'll never see your money and all the effort and stress of gettng a CCJ will have been for nothing.

So, if he has a car, let us know and you can get your money much faster - like in a week.

andyb28

767 posts

118 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
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I believe charges have to be paid before the sale can go through.

Blown2CV

Original Poster:

28,809 posts

203 months

Tuesday 25th August 2015
quotequote all
andyb28 said:
I believe charges have to be paid before the sale can go through.
So basically as long as it mentions me with contact details and has wording that I'm owed money somehow, it will have the desired effect? I was concerned it would have to be very precise, otherwise it would be ignored or something.

Billsnemesis

817 posts

237 months

Wednesday 26th August 2015
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As long as the charge is registered at the Land Registry then it will be a spanner in the works of any sale or remortgage. The wording and the way the Land Registry deal with charges is technical and there are some bear traps for the unwary so it would be worth getting legal advice to see whether what you have will protect you.

Simpo Two

85,422 posts

265 months

Wednesday 26th August 2015
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Billsnemesis said:
The wording and the way the Land Registry deal with charges is technical and there are some bear traps for the unwary so it would be worth getting legal advice to see whether what you have will protect you.
Yes, as I recall when I looked into this it's very complex and you wouldn't want him to wriggle off on a technicality.

Or £60 for the High Court of course smile

johnfm

13,668 posts

250 months

Wednesday 26th August 2015
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You might want to find out about whether you can register a charge on each of his properties rather than just one.

Don't forget to add statutory interest when the time comes. It could be quite a bit...

Simpo Two

85,422 posts

265 months

Thursday 27th August 2015
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johnfm said:
Don't forget to add statutory interest when the time comes. It could be quite a bit...
I think that's only between the date of the debt being due and the judgement, which he already has, and so should be included already (but stand to be corrected).

Leaky roof

1 posts

104 months

Saturday 29th August 2015
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A legal charge would be lodged with the land registry. You can pay £3 to see if your charge is in fact noted on the title deed. If it is noted then the seller and buyers solicitor would not be able to proceed with any potential sale until your charge had been dismissed...

Happy Jim

968 posts

239 months

Saturday 29th August 2015
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Simpo Two said:
I think that's only between the date of the debt being due and the judgement, which he already has, and so should be included already (but stand to be corrected).
Think you'll find it's at the court appointed rate until settled in full (8% pa IIRC)

Jim

Simpo Two

85,422 posts

265 months

Saturday 29th August 2015
quotequote all
Happy Jim said:
Think you'll find it's at the court appointed rate until settled in full (8% pa IIRC)
I don't see the process. That would mean the sum awarded in the judgement goes up after the award has been made... if I take two years to enforce the judgement, that's not the debtor's fault.

Happy Jim

968 posts

239 months

Saturday 29th August 2015
quotequote all
Simpo Two said:
I think that's only between the date of the debt being due and the judgement, which he already has, and so should be included already (but stand to be corrected).
Think you'll find it's at the court appointed rate until settled in full (8% pa IIRC)

Jim