Adverse possession
Discussion
I think so yes. If they have successfully asserted a right of adverse possession they will be registered as the proprietor of the title. I haven't a clue how it works if the title is unregistered land but even in the 1980s that's a very small percentage of English property. The law changed in the early 2000's to make it harder.
Thank you. The land in question was registered (as opposed to unregistered). It's not registered in my neighbour's title and remains part of my title (as the neighbouring landowner). That would suggest that a) they never applied for possessory title, or; b) they applied and were refused. It's whether they applied and whether there is an available record of that application that has come into question. And if it was scenario (b), where should I go looking, local Land Registry?
My wife bought a house a few years back, found the garage was built on 'council land'. Delayed the sale. land was inspected, it was obvious the garage had been there for any years, so no problem and my wife's title to the land was registered.
The lawyer said at the time there was some resrtiction to my wife's tite, I can't remember what it was, but if she sold then the new owner would get an unrestricted title.
The lawyer said at the time there was some resrtiction to my wife's tite, I can't remember what it was, but if she sold then the new owner would get an unrestricted title.
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