NIP, 14 days and postal strikes?
NIP, 14 days and postal strikes?
Author
Discussion

TooLateForAName

Original Poster:

4,933 posts

214 months

Saturday 17th December 2016
quotequote all
Just wanted to check if anything changes in the 14 day rule when there are postal strikes?

The wife has apparently driven through a red light this morning rolleyes
She is away for the weekend and it was an unfamiliar junction and she has no idea if there were cameras.

tapereel

1,860 posts

146 months

Saturday 17th December 2016
quotequote all
No

Riley Blue

23,205 posts

256 months

Saturday 17th December 2016
quotequote all
Post Office strikes shouldn't affect deliveries by Royal Mail.

TooLateForAName

Original Poster:

4,933 posts

214 months

Saturday 17th December 2016
quotequote all
OK cheers.

So she just needs to wait til the new year to be sure.

Boosted LS1

21,200 posts

290 months

Saturday 17th December 2016
quotequote all
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence. Tell them to fk off if it arrives out of time. Or is something different here?

egor110

17,681 posts

233 months

Saturday 17th December 2016
quotequote all
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence. Tell them to fk off if it arrives out of time. Or is something different here?
The people who collect/deliver your post aren't going on strike

paintman

7,860 posts

220 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
TooLateForAName said:
Just wanted to check if anything changes in the 14 day rule when there are postal strikes?

The wife has apparently driven through a red light this morning rolleyes
She is away for the weekend and it was an unfamiliar junction and she has no idea if there were cameras.
Yes.
Stated case is Gidden v Chief Constable of Humberside (2009). Refers specifically to NIP served by 1st class post.
Precis here: https://www.lawgazette.co.uk/law/criminal-procedur...


mybrainhurts

90,809 posts

285 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence.
Ohhhh, they don't.

Red Devil

13,524 posts

238 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
What point are you trying to make? If you are arguing that the 14 day rule doesn't apply, you couldn't be more wrong. The stated case is binding on all lower courts.

JonV8V

8,186 posts

154 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
mybrainhurts said:
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence.
Ohhhh, they don't.
Pantomine season already..

Oh yes they do..

48k

17,505 posts

178 months

Boosted LS1

21,200 posts

290 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
mybrainhurts said:
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence.
Ohhhh, they don't.
Oh yes they do.

I had one arrive well out of time and like a prat I completed the s172. Had I not done that it would have been a walk in the park.

tapereel

1,860 posts

146 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence. Tell them to fk off if it arrives out of time. Or is something different here?
The question was "Just wanted to check if anything changes in the 14 day rule when there are postal strikes?"

The answer is NO.

The requirement is to serve so the notice arrives in 14 days. If there is no post and a notice is put in the post on day 12, the last normally acceptable day of service by post, and there is no post because there is a strike and the notice doesn't get delivered by day 14 then it isn't served.

So the answer is NO.

There isn't any more posts required after my first one in this thread because it gave the answer.

Maybe I was mistaken and didn't take into account that there would be someone who couldn't perceive a one word answer to the question. I was perhaps underestimating your talent.

Boosted LS1

21,200 posts

290 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
Aren't not isn't. Your not so hot either.

JonV8V

8,186 posts

154 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
Boosted LS1 said:
Aren't not isn't. Your not so hot either.
You're not Your ffs

giantdefy

700 posts

143 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
Even if the S172 arrives outside the 14 days you still need to complete it or you will be committing a new offence of Failure to Provide. The original offence is probably defendable though.

tapereel

1,860 posts

146 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
JonV8V said:
Boosted LS1 said:
Aren't not isn't. Your not so hot either.
You're not Your ffs
I think you are about to get an "I did that on purpose." reply. smile

egor110

17,681 posts

233 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
tapereel said:
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence. Tell them to fk off if it arrives out of time. Or is something different here?
The question was "Just wanted to check if anything changes in the 14 day rule when there are postal strikes?"

The answer is NO.

The requirement is to serve so the notice arrives in 14 days. If there is no post and a notice is put in the post on day 12, the last normally acceptable day of service by post, and there is no post because there is a strike and the notice doesn't get delivered by day 14 then it isn't served.

So the answer is NO.

There isn't any more posts required after my first one in this thread because it gave the answer.

Maybe I was mistaken and didn't take into account that there would be someone who couldn't perceive a one word answer to the question. I was perhaps underestimating your talent.
Maybe if you were so clever you'd of known the post office and royal mail are two different companies and wouldn't of needed to ask the question in the first place?

Josho

748 posts

127 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
I had a case where I was caught doing 117MPH in a 50MPH limit in a van.

While I heavily contested the fact that a van with an 82MPH speed limiter fitted by Iveco (don't ask me why it's 82MPH I have no idea) could do 117MPH I kept that info to the side and concentrated on the facts that:

I was caught speeding on 20/12/2014.

On the 5/01/2015 the registered keeper/company received a NIP.

This was 16 days after the conviction.

Went for the hearing, offered a heafty ban and fine etc which was considered light as I had a clean record. Explained the issue, CPS man ent all funny as was not expecting it. Sent outside, CPS man tells me no way I'd get off with it.

Plead not guilty.

Trial comes, new CPS man and new legal lady who was proper fit. I am asked why I pled not guilty. I give evidence to late NIP to CPS man, signed documents from company manager and administrator. He Googles the company and convinces himself it is legit.

Asks legal lady or whoever she is (fit though) if I have any previous, she says it's all clean.

Judges come in, CPS man explain that there is a 14 day rule and he could adjourn case and issue witness statements and ask manager to come to court but he considers it a waste of time and will accept the two signed documents.

I am told I am free to go.


tapereel

1,860 posts

146 months

Sunday 18th December 2016
quotequote all
egor110 said:
tapereel said:
Boosted LS1 said:
tapereel said:
No
Surely it should be a YES. You/They have to get it to your address within 14 days of the offence. Tell them to fk off if it arrives out of time. Or is something different here?
The question was "Just wanted to check if anything changes in the 14 day rule when there are postal strikes?"

The answer is NO.

The requirement is to serve so the notice arrives in 14 days. If there is no post and a notice is put in the post on day 12, the last normally acceptable day of service by post, and there is no post because there is a strike and the notice doesn't get delivered by day 14 then it isn't served.

So the answer is NO.

There isn't any more posts required after my first one in this thread because it gave the answer.

Maybe I was mistaken and didn't take into account that there would be someone who couldn't perceive a one word answer to the question. I was perhaps underestimating your talent.
Maybe if you were so clever you'd of known the post office and royal mail are two different companies and wouldn't of needed to ask the question in the first place?
I didn't ask any questions.

I didn't refer to Royal Mail or Post Office but referred to 'post'.

I may 'have' known the difference between the post office and Royal Mail but that makes no difference because the question and the law uses the term "post" not the service provider.