Contractual Liability Query
Contractual Liability Query
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WindyM

Original Poster:

443 posts

170 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
(This scenario relates to trying to buy an antique artefact.)

I sent an email to the vendor confirming I would like to purchase the artefact and posted a cheque. The vendor mistook my email for spam and deleted my email. Before my cheque arrived, he sold the artefact to a dealer. He has returned my cheque.

Do I have any claim against the vendor under the Postal Rule because of the email?

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
Not so fast -

(1) ISTR that it remains unclear whether the postal rule applies to emails.

(2) In any event, the email was in fact received, but was deleted unread.

Is there, however, any measurable loss? Would the game be worth the candle?

Antique artefact? I am guessing one of Napoleon Bonaparte's famous sex toys.

kowalski655

15,225 posts

173 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
Thinking back to learning contract law many moons ago,and that Boots Pharma case, wont his ad for sale be an invitation to treat, your e mail is an offer to buy, albeit not read, so there is no acceptance of your offer, so no contract & no loss
I stand(or rather sit at the minute) to be corrected.

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
As is usual here, the OP wants advice but could not be arsed to tell us the facts. If there had been earlier communications between the parties, the email may have been an acceptance, but we are left guessing.

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
If you had proof that the email had been read, you might have the beginnings of a potential case

A read receipt notification or similar

Absent that, and with no other communication between you about the prospective purchase, I think you have nothing

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
IF the email was an acceptance, and IF the postal rule applies to emails (both IFs), then the OP made a contract.

Contract Killer

4,509 posts

213 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
How do you know that the seller would have been happy to sell it to you?
You may not have met his criteria as a buyer.

Do you not think he would have replied if he wanted to sell to you?

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all

Er, wibble?

Also, top tip: read the opening post.

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
Thomas and Gander v BPE Solicitors (a firm) [2010] EWHC 306 (Ch)

Blair J:


86 The general rule is that the acceptance of an offer is not effective until communicated to the offeror. The “postal rule” is an anomalous exception to the general rule, which is limited to its particular circumstances. It does not apply to acceptances made by some “instantaneous” mode of communication (Chitty on Contracts, 30th edn, paragraph 2-050). This was decided in Entores Ltd v Miles Far East Corporation [1955] 2 QB 327 as regards communications by telex. At page 334, Denning LJ said that in such a case, “The contract is only complete when the acceptance is received by the offeror”. Contrary to the claimants' submissions, in my view the same principle applies to communication by email, at least where the parties are conducting the matter by email, as the solicitors were in this case. However, that does not conclude the question, because issues may remain as to when the email in question was received (and also whether it was received). As Lord Wilberforce put it in Brinkibon Ltd v Stahag Stahl G.m.b.h. [1983] 2 AC 34 (another telex case in which Entores was approved) at page 42:

“Where the condition of simultaneity is met, and where it appears to be within the mutual intention of the parties that contractual exchanges should take place in this way, I think it a sound rule, but not necessarily a universal rule.
…The senders and recipients may not be the principals to the contemplated contract. They may be servants or agents with limited authority. The message may not reach, or be intended to reach, the designated recipient immediately: messages may be sent out of office hours, or at night, with the intention, or upon the assumption, that they will be read at a later time. There may be some error or default at the recipient's end which prevents receipt at the time contemplated and believed in by the sender. The message may have been sent and/or received through machines operated by third persons. And many other variations may occur.





OK, but what if, as here, the email was received but not read?

anonymous-user

84 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
Blair J continues -

90. Once one sets aside the "postal rule" as inapplicable to email communications, the question whether an email acceptance is effective when it arrives, or at the time when the offeror could reasonably be expected to have read it, is not a straightforward one, and does not appear to be settled by authority. On the basis that it must be resolved by reference to the intentions of the parties, by sound business practice and in some cases by a judgment where the risks should lie (Brinkibon at page 42)...

WindyM

Original Poster:

443 posts

170 months

Tuesday 19th December 2017
quotequote all
Thanks guys - particularly Breadvan72 for the case law reference.
As the vendor is a private individual, I'll let it go.
Had he been a dealer, I might have made a challenge.