Ex-Tory MP Andrew Griffiths found to have raped wife
Discussion
MrBogSmith said:
768 said:
MrBogSmith said:
What's misleading about it?
Presumably that he's not had a rape trial to be found to have raped anyone.He has, on the balance of probabilities, been found to have raped her. Therefore 'found' to have.
Is it better if it comes from the Telgraph?
Former Tory minister Andrew Griffiths raped and physically abused wife, judge finds
How about focusing on his behaviour towards his wife rather than how unfair all the headlines are on the poor chap or it's because he's a Conservative.
Christ.
Former Tory minister Andrew Griffiths raped and physically abused wife, judge finds
How about focusing on his behaviour towards his wife rather than how unfair all the headlines are on the poor chap or it's because he's a Conservative.
Christ.
GC8 said:
The title is misleading, isnt it?
I think it is In a civil court, not a criminal court he has on the balance of probabilities, in the opinion of the judge coerced someone to engage in sexual activity and potentially had intercourse without consent
Some might say that is splitting hairs .. however there is a massive difference between a criminal conviction, beyond all reasonable doubt, that he forced vaginal intercourse, heard in front of a jury in a Crown Court and a family court judge saying he believed he coerced sexual activity
Whether this subsequently leads to a criminal allegation and trial remains to be seen
But I think using the term “rape” is potentially misleading as he hasn’t been convicted of that crime
Not that in I’m in anyway condoning or excusing his behaviour but I think words so emotive should be used sparingly
silentbrown said:
It's there in black and white in the judge's findings.
Quite.They're here if anyone wants to read up on how the judge found as they did.
https://www.judiciary.uk/wp-content/uploads/2021/1...
MrBogSmith said:
Earthdweller said:
Some might say that is splitting hairs .. however there is a massive difference between a criminal conviction, beyond all reasonable doubt, that he forced vaginal intercourse, heard in front of a jury in a Crown Court and a family court judge saying he believed he coerced sexual activity.
Why would it need to be 'forced' in the CC, yet 'coerced' in the family court? Why can't it also be coerced for both? The variable is the threshold required to draw a conclusion, not the definition or circumstances. As per the circumstances here:
How would you describe it if not rape?
"Sex without consent"?
"Sleepy sex"?
Different courts, different rules and evidence thresholds
Describing someone as being a rapist when the offence hasn’t been proved … is misleading.
The court published a judgement saying it found that he'd raped his wife.
There's only so many ways to report that.
Bit more info here.
Disgraced former MP loses appeal against publication of ‘abuse’ ruling
There's only so many ways to report that.
Bit more info here.
Disgraced former MP loses appeal against publication of ‘abuse’ ruling
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