House co-ownership percentage?
House co-ownership percentage?
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techmoan

Original Poster:

127 posts

133 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Can anyone help with my maths please?

A&B buy a property for £312,995

A puts forward a deposit of £35k
B puts forwards a deposit of £50k

In the co-ownership percentage what percentage does B own over A? If someone can let me know the working so I can let the mrs know and she can't argue about it, that'll be great smile


Ekona

1,684 posts

232 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
I'd say they own it 50/50, unless there was a contract drawn up to say otherwise.

They may have put in different deposit amounts, but that's not relevant to ownership percentages. I think.

kentlad

1,375 posts

213 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
techmoan said:
Can anyone help with my maths please?

A&B buy a property for £312,995

A puts forward a deposit of £35k
B puts forwards a deposit of £50k

In the co-ownership percentage what percentage does B own over A? If someone can let me know the working so I can let the mrs know and she can't argue about it, that'll be great smile
35k would buy you 11.1% of the property.
50k would buy you 15.9% of the property.

So B currently 'owns' 4.8% more of the property.

SteveScooby

842 posts

207 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Call it 313k -85k deposit = 228k, split that between you so 114 each.

114 + 50 = 164k or 52.4%
114 + 35 = 149k or 47.6%

Until the value of the house changes...


anonymous-user

84 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
it depends how you WANT to share it.

does paying a bigger deposit give you a bigger share of the remainder of the property and the amount of mortgage to pay, or are you splitting the mortgage right down the middle?




Gavia

7,627 posts

121 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
If you bought the house together i.e. On the same mortgage then you're highly likely to be joint tenants and effectively you both own 100% of the house in the absence of any other paperwork describing how the house is actually owned.

Phud

1,486 posts

173 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
When you buy a house you need to fill in a TR1, this will say tenants in common or joint tenants, on the TR1 you divide the house ownership if tenants in common, the solicitor must talk you through it.

techmoan

Original Poster:

127 posts

133 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Yes currently going through the paperwork with solicitors. They can't advise on percentage so trying to work out what percentage is what. We will be paying mortgage 50/50 so just working out percentage from deposits.

cwis

1,248 posts

209 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
techmoan said:
Yes currently going through the paperwork with solicitors. They can't advise on percentage so trying to work out what percentage is what. We will be paying mortgage 50/50 so just working out percentage from deposits.
PH answer:

Put in 35K each and with the remaining 15K buy an MX5.

Then it's 50:50, save on solicitors, you'll be tenants in common and you'll have an MX5!

Old Merc

3,819 posts

197 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Ekona said:
I'd say they own it 50/50, unless there was a contract drawn up to say otherwise.

They may have put in different deposit amounts, but that's not relevant to ownership percentages. I think.
This is the way to do it,a proper contract

Many years ago my then girlfriend and I bought a house with me paying about 60% of the deposit.She worked at a solicitors office and drew up a "declaration of trust" I think it was called.
This document was crucial for me because years later we split up.She stayed in the house and had to pay me 60% of the equity to leave.

Muncher

12,235 posts

279 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
You don't have to specify an absolute percentage, as long as it can be reasonably ascertained at a later point. I would put something like "the property shall be held in such proportions as the parties contribute to the deposit and to the mortgage payments in aggregate on an ongoing basis".

The raw % split figure is never going to be accurate or fair past the first mortgage payment.

HantsRat

2,409 posts

138 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Muncher said:
You don't have to specify an absolute percentage, as long as it can be reasonably ascertained at a later point. I would put something like "the property shall be held in such proportions as the parties contribute to the deposit and to the mortgage payments in aggregate on an ongoing basis".

The raw % split figure is never going to be accurate or fair past the first mortgage payment.
Will it not? Say if person B owns 4.8% more than A.

When they come to sell surely they just split the equity but person B gets 4.8% more and it will be fair whether the house has increased in value or lost value?

I may be completely wrong here. Maths or working these things out confuse me!

Muncher

12,235 posts

279 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
A&B buy a house for £200k with the aid of a 75% mortgage.

A contributes £40k to the deposit
B contributes £10k to the deposit

A therefore owns 80% of the property.

Disregarding interest, they pay the mortgage equally every month.

At the end of the term:

A has contributed £115k (£40k + £75k of mortgage repayments)
B has contributed £85k (£10k + £75k of mortgage payments)

Yet according to the simple declaration of trust A still owns 80% of the property....

TwigtheWonderkid

49,148 posts

180 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Do you want to know in case things don't work out and you have to sell up?. If so, B has put in £15K more than A. And the house is valued at £313K. When you sell, see what the % increase is, and apply that to the £15K.

So, being simplistic, you separate in 10 years and the house has doubled, and sells for £626K. B gets £30K more than A (A gets £298K, B gets £328K).

Because if the house has doubled, B's £50K has become £100K, and A's £35K has become £70K.

Muncher

12,235 posts

279 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
TwigtheWonderkid said:
Do you want to know in case things don't work out and you have to sell up?. If so, B has put in £15K more than A. And the house is valued at £313K. When you sell, see what the % increase is, and apply that to the £15K.

So, being simplistic, you separate in 10 years and the house has doubled, and sells for £626K. B gets £30K more than A (A gets £298K, B gets £328K).

Because if the house has doubled, B's £50K has become £100K, and A's £35K has become £70K.
That doesn't work if for whatever reason one person pays more of the mortgage or one person stops paying the mortgage for a while, or if you split up, one person continues to live in the house so pays all of the mortgage for a year or two before they sell it.

TwigtheWonderkid

49,148 posts

180 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Muncher said:
TwigtheWonderkid said:
Do you want to know in case things don't work out and you have to sell up?. If so, B has put in £15K more than A. And the house is valued at £313K. When you sell, see what the % increase is, and apply that to the £15K.

So, being simplistic, you separate in 10 years and the house has doubled, and sells for £626K. B gets £30K more than A (A gets £298K, B gets £328K).

Because if the house has doubled, B's £50K has become £100K, and A's £35K has become £70K.
That doesn't work if for whatever reason one person pays more of the mortgage or one person stops paying the mortgage for a while, or if you split up, one person continues to live in the house so pays all of the mortgage for a year or two before they sell it.
True. It assumes that deposit aside, all other contributions are equal.

Muncher

12,235 posts

279 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
TwigtheWonderkid said:
True. It assumes that deposit aside, all other contributions are equal.
You can then complicate it even further by way of contributions to improvements!

techmoan

Original Poster:

127 posts

133 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
All contributions will be equal so will going by % difference on deposit be ok?

kentlad

1,375 posts

213 months

Wednesday 29th March 2017
quotequote all
Yes, there will always be a 4.8% difference in ownership share if you're going down that route and splitting the mortgage equally.

KevinCamaroSS

13,843 posts

310 months

Thursday 30th March 2017
quotequote all
Simples, agree that the first portion of the equity on sale is equal to the equity paid in, then split the rest 50/50.