Mortgage additional borrowing
Discussion
Hi all,
But of a weird one but scenario so apologies!
Four years ago myself and wife purchased a property with the in laws, house was £250k and they kicked in £70k. In turn we pay the entire mortgage (should add the £70k had to be gifted). Fast forward to now and ideally we want to buy them out, the house is valued at 265-270k, we would like to take 50k from the house plus 20k from us to give them the 70k back.
Question is... is it possible to borrow the 50k against the house to then give someone else?
Sorry about the rambling post!
But of a weird one but scenario so apologies!
Four years ago myself and wife purchased a property with the in laws, house was £250k and they kicked in £70k. In turn we pay the entire mortgage (should add the £70k had to be gifted). Fast forward to now and ideally we want to buy them out, the house is valued at 265-270k, we would like to take 50k from the house plus 20k from us to give them the 70k back.
Question is... is it possible to borrow the 50k against the house to then give someone else?
Sorry about the rambling post!
Leemcd said:
Hi all,
But of a weird one but scenario so apologies!
Four years ago myself and wife purchased a property with the in laws, house was £250k and they kicked in £70k. In turn we pay the entire mortgage (should add the £70k had to be gifted). Fast forward to now and ideally we want to buy them out, the house is valued at 265-270k, we would like to take 50k from the house plus 20k from us to give them the 70k back.
Question is... is it possible to borrow the 50k against the house to then give someone else?
Sorry about the rambling post!
Whats the current balance?But of a weird one but scenario so apologies!
Four years ago myself and wife purchased a property with the in laws, house was £250k and they kicked in £70k. In turn we pay the entire mortgage (should add the £70k had to be gifted). Fast forward to now and ideally we want to buy them out, the house is valued at 265-270k, we would like to take 50k from the house plus 20k from us to give them the 70k back.
Question is... is it possible to borrow the 50k against the house to then give someone else?
Sorry about the rambling post!
Sarnie said:
Leemcd said:
Hi all,
But of a weird one but scenario so apologies!
Four years ago myself and wife purchased a property with the in laws, house was £250k and they kicked in £70k. In turn we pay the entire mortgage (should add the £70k had to be gifted). Fast forward to now and ideally we want to buy them out, the house is valued at 265-270k, we would like to take 50k from the house plus 20k from us to give them the 70k back.
Question is... is it possible to borrow the 50k against the house to then give someone else?
Sorry about the rambling post!
Whats the current balance?But of a weird one but scenario so apologies!
Four years ago myself and wife purchased a property with the in laws, house was £250k and they kicked in £70k. In turn we pay the entire mortgage (should add the £70k had to be gifted). Fast forward to now and ideally we want to buy them out, the house is valued at 265-270k, we would like to take 50k from the house plus 20k from us to give them the 70k back.
Question is... is it possible to borrow the 50k against the house to then give someone else?
Sorry about the rambling post!
Semantics perhaps, but you're suggesting borrowing money to 'repay' an amount of money that you probably certified was a gift four years ago, and therefore would not need to be repaid.
I can't imagine there are any consequences, but if the lender was sufficiently interested, could this constitute some kind of breach of contract at the date of the original loan?
If the lender determined that you qualified for a lower interest rate because the £70k was equity, than you would have qualified for had the £70k been correctly determined as debt, is there any realistic possibility of the lender now penalising the borrower retrospectively?
I can't imagine there are any consequences, but if the lender was sufficiently interested, could this constitute some kind of breach of contract at the date of the original loan?
If the lender determined that you qualified for a lower interest rate because the £70k was equity, than you would have qualified for had the £70k been correctly determined as debt, is there any realistic possibility of the lender now penalising the borrower retrospectively?
foiled said:
What's wrong with telling them it's for home improvements?
I borrowed a similar amount last year, and didn't get any probing questions, seemed happy that it was for a kitchen extension. No further questions asked.
Could have put the entire amount on roulette for all they have known.
Was it at 85% LTV during a Pandemic? I borrowed a similar amount last year, and didn't get any probing questions, seemed happy that it was for a kitchen extension. No further questions asked.
Could have put the entire amount on roulette for all they have known.

sideways sid said:
Semantics perhaps, but you're suggesting borrowing money to 'repay' an amount of money that you probably certified was a gift four years ago, and therefore would not need to be repaid.
I can't imagine there are any consequences, but if the lender was sufficiently interested, could this constitute some kind of breach of contract at the date of the original loan?
If the lender determined that you qualified for a lower interest rate because the £70k was equity, than you would have qualified for had the £70k been correctly determined as debt, is there any realistic possibility of the lender now penalising the borrower retrospectively?
very good point..I can't imagine there are any consequences, but if the lender was sufficiently interested, could this constitute some kind of breach of contract at the date of the original loan?
If the lender determined that you qualified for a lower interest rate because the £70k was equity, than you would have qualified for had the £70k been correctly determined as debt, is there any realistic possibility of the lender now penalising the borrower retrospectively?
sideways sid said:
Semantics perhaps, but you're suggesting borrowing money to 'repay' an amount of money that you probably certified was a gift four years ago, and therefore would not need to be repaid.
I can't imagine there are any consequences, but if the lender was sufficiently interested, could this constitute some kind of breach of contract at the date of the original loan?
If the OP were going to another lender then it likely wouldn't really matter. If a further advance/additional lending with the same lender then questions could be asked. I can't imagine there are any consequences, but if the lender was sufficiently interested, could this constitute some kind of breach of contract at the date of the original loan?
Again depending on the lender it may be deemed as debt consolidation so could be capped by policy rules for debt consolidation.
Gassing Station | Finance | Top of Page | What's New | My Stuff


