Deal a deck of cards (maths question)
Deal a deck of cards (maths question)
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Tuska

Original Poster:

961 posts

259 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
Dear brain of PH.

I'm doing some research for a speech i have to make and am trying to illustrate a point.
Can anyone answer the following:-

If you shuffle and deal a standard deck of cards into 4 hands of 13. What are the odds on one of the hands being dealt as all one suit?

Its over to you......smile

hornetrider

63,161 posts

234 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.

...practically nil hehe

speedychrissie

2,994 posts

268 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
hornetrider said:
13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.

...practically nil hehe
if that theory is correct (and i think it is), then the chance is 1:158 Billion (roughly)

that number is the chance of one of the collections being all the same suit. If you want to specify (ie the chance that all the diamonds will group together) then it is roughly 1:635 Billion


my calculations may be wrong but i hope that helps.

Tuska

Original Poster:

961 posts

259 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
speedychrissie said:
hornetrider said:
13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.

...practically nil hehe
if that theory is correct (and i think it is), then the chance is 1:158 Billion (roughly)

that number is the chance of one of the collections being all the same suit. If you want to specify (ie the chance that all the diamonds will group together) then it is roughly 1:635 Billion


my calculations may be wrong but i hope that helps.
Perfect, thanks! 635 billion was the number i was given elsewhere.
It seemed massive to me, but then i guess it is.......

Russian Rocket

874 posts

265 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
another way of looking at it is the number of different ways the hands can be delt if factorial 52 = 52! = 52*51*50....
= 12.E65 to 1 against

JP_Midget

438 posts

240 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
Tuska said:
speedychrissie said:
hornetrider said:
13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.

...practically nil hehe
if that theory is correct (and i think it is), then the chance is 1:158 Billion (roughly)

that number is the chance of one of the collections being all the same suit. If you want to specify (ie the chance that all the diamonds will group together) then it is roughly 1:635 Billion


my calculations may be wrong but i hope that helps.
Perfect, thanks! 635 billion was the number i was given elsewhere.
It seemed massive to me, but then i guess it is.......
But surely the first card doesn't matter what it is, so the calculation of all cards in a hand being any complete suit would be...

1 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc. etc.?

If you wanted to specify the actual suit then you would revert to

13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.?

hornetrider

63,161 posts

234 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
Actually thinking about it, the odds I gave were dealing out one suit directly.

What you've said is deal out all cards into four piles then what is the likelihood one of those piles is one suit, correct? i.e., the three other piles can be mixed. That is far more complicated and I can't even fathom it.



Edited by hornetrider on Monday 23 February 17:55

speedychrissie

2,994 posts

268 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
JP_Midget said:
Tuska said:
speedychrissie said:
hornetrider said:
13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.

...practically nil hehe
if that theory is correct (and i think it is), then the chance is 1:158 Billion (roughly)

that number is the chance of one of the collections being all the same suit. If you want to specify (ie the chance that all the diamonds will group together) then it is roughly 1:635 Billion


my calculations may be wrong but i hope that helps.
Perfect, thanks! 635 billion was the number i was given elsewhere.
It seemed massive to me, but then i guess it is.......
But surely the first card doesn't matter what it is, so the calculation of all cards in a hand being any complete suit would be...

1 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc. etc.?

If you wanted to specify the actual suit then you would revert to

13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 etc etc.?
you are right, and that is why I have given two different odds in my post. one for any suit and one for a named suit.

pokethepope

2,667 posts

217 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
You could do a tree diagram. Have you got a piece of paper the size of Brazil?

cazzer

8,883 posts

277 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
Whatever.
Don't put money on it smile

The Moose

23,672 posts

238 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
cazzer said:
Whatever.
Don't put money on it smile
Yeah, but imagine putting a quid on and getting a squazillion back!! rofl

cazzer

8,883 posts

277 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
The Moose said:
cazzer said:
Whatever.
Don't put money on it smile
Yeah, but imagine putting a quid on and getting a squazillion back!! rofl
It could be youuuuuuu.
Or not.

JP_Midget

438 posts

240 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
hornetrider said:
Actually thinking about it, the odds I gave were dealing out one suit directly.

What you've said is deal out all cards into four piles then what is the likelihood one of those piles is one suit, correct? i.e., the three other piles can be mixed. That is far more complicated and I can't even fathom it.

Edited by hornetrider on Monday 23 February 17:55
Oh, so possibly

1 x 39/51 x 38/50 x 37/49 x 12/48 x 36/47 x 35/46 x 34/45 ...

The Moose

23,672 posts

238 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
ok, four "sets" delt - S1, S2, S3 and S4.

The chances of S1 being all one suit:

13/52 * 12/51 * 11/50 * 10/49 * 9/48 * 8/47 * 7/46 & 6/45 * 5/44 * 4/43 * 3/42 * 2/41 * 1/40 = 1.57477 x 10^-12 = 0.00000000000157477 = 1 / 635,014,000,000.

The chances of S2 being all one suit:

13/52 * 12/51 * 11/50 * 10/49 * 9/48 * 8/47 * 7/46 & 6/45 * 5/44 * 4/43 * 3/42 * 2/41 * 1/40 = 1.57477 x 10^-12 = 0.00000000000157477 = 1 / 635,014,000,000.

The chances of S3 being all one suit:

13/52 * 12/51 * 11/50 * 10/49 * 9/48 * 8/47 * 7/46 & 6/45 * 5/44 * 4/43 * 3/42 * 2/41 * 1/40 = 1.57477 x 10^-12 = 0.00000000000157477 = 1 / 635,014,000,000.

The chances of S4 being all one suit:

13/52 * 12/51 * 11/50 * 10/49 * 9/48 * 8/47 * 7/46 & 6/45 * 5/44 * 4/43 * 3/42 * 2/41 * 1/40 = 1.57477 x 10^-12 = 0.00000000000157477 = 1 / 635,014,000,000.

ok the chances of S1 or S2 or S3 or S4 being all one suit:
0.00000000000157477 + 0.00000000000157477 + 0.00000000000157477 + 0.00000000000157477 = 0.00000000000629908 = 1 \ 158,753,000,000.

So 1 in 158 billion, 753 million times.

So a quid bet would return you roughly 158 and 3/4 billion quid!!

RacingPete

9,195 posts

233 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
Surely it depends on how many times you shuffle the deck too... as IIRC after about 4 shuffles the pack starts to sort itself out a bit more thus affecting the randomness of the deal!

But that just starts to get stupid... so ^^^ What he said ^^^

richyb

4,615 posts

239 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
MX5 ?

leeb

1,074 posts

272 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
you could cheat the odds, and just use a brand new deck each time, then the chances are fairly high if you are clever with the dealing! smile


mmm-five

12,294 posts

313 months

Monday 23rd February 2009
quotequote all
Surely the chances of one of the piles being of the same suit would not be going down in increments of one, as each pile is only added to every 4th deal.

Wouldn't it then be 12/51 x 11/47 x 10/43 x 9/39 x 8/35 x etc.