Really simple maths question
Really simple maths question
Author
Discussion

miniman

Original Poster:

30,088 posts

292 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
God only knows why I can't get my head around this.

What is the percentage difference between -3500 and -2000? (in terms of financial losses)

In other words the actual result is -2000 and the projected result was -3500 - in percentage terms how much better is the actual?

paperbag

Matt Evans

1,530 posts

204 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
57.14%

I think.

st_files

5,443 posts

211 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
miniman said:
God only knows why I can't get my head around this.

What is the percentage difference between -3500 and -2000? (in terms of financial losses)

In other words the actual result is -2000 and the projected result was -3500 - in percentage terms how much better is the actual?

paperbag
57.14%

miniman

Original Poster:

30,088 posts

292 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
Ta!

The Black Flash

13,735 posts

228 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
-2000 is 57% of -3500. So losses were only 57% of what was projected.

I'm not sure it actually makes sense to say "x is so many percent better than y".

I'd go with "just over half" smile

Matt Evans

1,530 posts

204 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
Matt Evans said:
57.14%

I think.
Saying that though, I've just re-read your question. I suppose if you were saying how much better it was, then it would actually be 42.86%

Alex

9,978 posts

314 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
miniman said:
God only knows why I can't get my head around this.

What is the percentage difference between -3500 and -2000? (in terms of financial losses)

In other words the actual result is -2000 and the projected result was -3500 - in percentage terms how much better is the actual?

paperbag
Depends which ratio you want to express.

-3500 is 75% less than -2000 ((-3500 + 2000) * 100/ -2000)
-2000 is 57.1% of -3500 (-2000 * 100 / -3500)

So you could say:

"The financial losses were only 57.1% of the projected losses."
"The projected losses were 75% more than the actual losses."



AJS-

15,366 posts

266 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
2000 is 57.14% of 3500, or 3500 is 175% of 2000.

Nearly 60% or just over half, depending whethere you are trying to explain it or bust someone for it.

WorAl

10,877 posts

218 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
Matt Evans said:
Matt Evans said:
57.14%

I think.
Saying that though, I've just re-read your question. I suppose if you were saying how much better it was, then it would actually be 42.86%
I think this is the correct answer after reading the question.

MikeO996

2,008 posts

254 months

Friday 29th January 2010
quotequote all
Trickey little buggers, percentages.