Unwittingly bought an ex-rental car and the law on this?

[Immortalisation]

TooMany2cvs said:

Immortalisation said:

In my case I’m well past the point of trying to claim any compensation

We're talking generally.

Immortalisation said:

but let’s say a case does go to court and is successful in the future, what’s to say that any theoretical compensation wouldn’t be worked out based on the value of the car against a privately owned car

We're working on the assumption that there's zero difference.

Immortalisation said:

but purely based on the fact that the car was missold, or not clearly labelled or identified as an ex-rental so to speak?

We already know there's zero value difference, so no financial loss.
Is there any tangible difference in the car itself, as far as the usual consumer rights grounds go? None.
So... compensation would be based on...? Hurt feelings and disregarded preferences. We know what compensation is due for those...

Clearly, you feel that inadequate. Such is your prerogative. What compensation would you say should be due for those, and how would you say it should be calculated, fairly and in such a way as to dissuade vexatious or spurious claims?

It’s not based on hurt feelings it’s based on the perception that an ex-rental car is generally going to have been abused more than a privately owned car. For example, an ex rental car may well have been regularly driven hard whilst the engine was still cold. A private owner is generally going to be more likely to wait for his/her car to warm up first.