Employer changing notice period
Discussion
I am currently looking to move roles and I stumbled across my existing contract which states (and is signed by me) that I have to provide 1 month notice. When I spoke to HR they stated that this was wrong and was changed in 2006 to a 3 month period, the only evidence of this is a note on the salary review saying there may be a change to T&C's
Where do I stand with this, if I have not signed or agreed this change to contract? According to Employment Law as I understand there is no need to obtain a signature, but they do have to provide a notice of the change in writing.
Has anyone challenged this in the past?
Where do I stand with this, if I have not signed or agreed this change to contract? According to Employment Law as I understand there is no need to obtain a signature, but they do have to provide a notice of the change in writing.
Has anyone challenged this in the past?
Cmof said:
No. it's not an implied term, as notice periods are required by law to be an express term and included in the Written Statement of Particulars. If you have had no consultation or an exact written statement of the new term with a notice period, then the old term prevails.
Thanks for the info, I now have a new job offer so we shall see how I get on challanging this.Gassing Station | Jobs & Employment Matters | Top of Page | What's New | My Stuff